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	<title>Comments on: Free Expression</title>
	<link>http://larison.org/2007/12/13/free-expression/</link>
	<description>n. the principle of good order "Observe the strange inversion of all order and sense! Dignity debased; how vilely is the function of a consul prostituted!" ~The Craftsman</description>
	<pubDate>Thu, 18 Mar 2010 15:25:42 +0000</pubDate>
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		<title>by: Daniel Larison</title>
		<link>http://larison.org/2007/12/13/free-expression/#comment-8361</link>
		<pubDate>Fri, 14 Dec 2007 18:59:29 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid>http://larison.org/2007/12/13/free-expression/#comment-8361</guid>
					<description>Yes, that's right.  That sums it up much more concisely than I did.</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Yes, that&#8217;s right.  That sums it up much more concisely than I did.
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		<title>by: expertlaw</title>
		<link>http://larison.org/2007/12/13/free-expression/#comment-8356</link>
		<pubDate>Fri, 14 Dec 2007 14:44:31 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid>http://larison.org/2007/12/13/free-expression/#comment-8356</guid>
					<description>I think Krauthammer is confusing First Amendment principles with the Article IV, Section 3 provision that "...no religious test shall ever be required as a qualification to any office or public trust under the United States" - he mentions that in passing, and seems to regret that it doesn't extend to the decisions of voters. What he seems to most lament is that certain politicians are encouraging voters to apply a religious test, prior to considering any substantive issues, in which case you are correct that he's not describing a First Amendment issue. Nothing in the First Amendment would prohibit a candidate for elected office from saying, "Vote for me, because I'm a man of faith" - quite the opposite.</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>I think Krauthammer is confusing First Amendment principles with the Article IV, Section 3 provision that &#8220;&#8230;no religious test shall ever be required as a qualification to any office or public trust under the United States&#8221; - he mentions that in passing, and seems to regret that it doesn&#8217;t extend to the decisions of voters. What he seems to most lament is that certain politicians are encouraging voters to apply a religious test, prior to considering any substantive issues, in which case you are correct that he&#8217;s not describing a First Amendment issue. Nothing in the First Amendment would prohibit a candidate for elected office from saying, &#8220;Vote for me, because I&#8217;m a man of faith&#8221; - quite the opposite.
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